MSK Individual Readiness Assurance Test (iRAT) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In equine muscle injury, which enzymes are typically elevated in serum?
• Which form of vitamin D is most abundant in the body?
• What is the major concern with pigs infected with Trichinella solium?
• What is the underlying pathophysiology generally associated with masticatory muscle myositis?
• In HYPP, which electrolyte abnormality would you expect?
• Why does the pelvis typically fracture in more than one location?
• The Western black legged tick carries which disease?
• Which statement about OCD lesions in dogs is most accurate?
• How does the outcome of surgical intervention for OCD differ between dogs and horses?
• Choose horse most likely to have HYPP.
• Which imaging modality is best for differentiating erosive from non-erosive IMPA?
• In avian radiography, which views are recommended for assessment?
• NOT part of the four protective muscles for the lateral thoracic wall during thoracic limb amputation?
• In dogs, what is the prognosis after surgery for stifle or tarsal OCD?
• Which statement about PSSM Type 2 is true?
• The classic radiographic appearance of osteosarcoma is which pattern?
• CrCL disease in small dogs is commonly associated with which condition?
• What are classic signs of temporohyoid osteopathy?
• What is the most common signalment for a horse presenting with osteochondrosis?
• Which imaging modality is described as the best method for identifying rib fractures in foals?
• What is the most common etiologic agent of bacterial osteomyelitis in companion animals in Arizona?
• The majority of published equine osteosarcoma cases involve which anatomical region?
• When performing arthrocentesis in suspected IMPA, which joints would be ideal to sample?
• Which dietary modification is supported by evidence to lower the risk of osteochondrosis?
• What is another name for the stifle joint in a chicken patient?
• What is the most common location for a subchondral cystic lesion in a horse?
• In canine immune mediated polyarthritis, what does primary refer to in its pathogenesis?
• In dogs, hip dysplasia leading to OA occurs primarily due to what process?
• Dog with acute non weight bearing lameness; marked triceps atrophy and inability to extend elbow; most likely diagnosis?
• The range paralysis stance describes a bird in sternal recumbency with one leg forward and one leg back and is often associated with which disease?
• Bog spavin in horses with OCD of the tarsocrural joint is caused by what?
• Which radiographic finding would raise suspicion of NOT osteosarcoma, but a periarticular tumor?
• The cranial intermediate ridge of the distal tibia is on which bone?
• 3 yo MN cat for blood loss anemia. Chem panel shows hypoalbuminemia and total serum calcium mildly decreased. What do you expect ionized calcium and PTH to be?
• PSSM Type 1 is associated with mutation in which gene?
• Which of the following is the most common etiologic agent of bacterial osteomyelitis in companion animals?
• What sign suggests a chicken may be experiencing physical stress?
• What is the effect of PTH on serum phosphate?
• Where are the majority of the body's calcium stores located?
• Which structure is transected during inferior (distal) check ligament desmotomy in horse?
• What tissue is directly involved in regulating blood levels of calcium?
• Which radiographic location would heighten the index of suspicion for a secondary bone tumor?
• During an HYPP episode, why are horses given oral sugar such as karo syrup?
• Ionophores primarily increase growth rates by manipulating which population?
• Recumbent, 4 yo QH gelding. Owner reports standing quietly 12 hrs ago and progressed to stiff gait and then unwillingness to rise. Other horses in barn showing mandibular lymphadenopathy. What is primary differential?
• The moth eaten (osteolytic) appearance on this canine radiograph is most prominent on which bones of the forelimbs?
• Which nerves innervate the suspensory ligament in the hindlimb?
• Osteosarcoma accounts for what percentage of canine primary bone tumors?
• During restraint of a chicken, how should you hold the wings?
• What are net effects of PTH on serum mineral levels?
• Common vessels for venipuncture in a chicken?
• In horses, OCD lesions are more commonly found in which joints?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical necropsy finding in ionophore poisoning?
• Which joint is primarily affected by a rupture of the cranial cruciate ligament?
• The inferior check ligament is the accessory ligament of which tendon?
• Which statement about oblique radiographs of the carpus is true?
• The tarsocrural joint is also known as which joint?
• Which statement about the relationship between flap lesions and subchondral bone cysts in OCD is correct?
• Bog spavin is caused by what in OCD of the tarsocrural joint?
• Which carpal bone articulation forms an uppercase T on the DLPMO oblique radiograph when evaluating the dorsomedial aspect of the carpus?
• What does synovial fluid cytology show in cases of IMPA?
• If a mare tests positive for PSSM on muscle biopsy but is negative for the GYS1 mutation, which statement about breeding is most accurate?
• Which statement best describes the pathogenesis of osteochondrosis?
• The distal interphalangeal joint is located in which region of the limb?
• What is the primary function of an ionophore in ruminant nutrition?
• What are the causative agents of the clinical signs seen in animals with Clostridial myositis?
• In horses, by what age are most osteochondrosis lesions diagnosed?
• Radial nerve injury signs: loss of extension explained by paralysis of which muscle?
• What is the significance of a head nod during a lameness evaluation in a horse?
• Which of the following does not predispose an animal to acquiring bacterial osteomyelitis?
• Cat with swelling at distal humerus and progressive lameness; next best step?
• The foal in the photo exhibits an abnormality in which muscle group?
• What is true about the genetic contribution to osteochondrosis?
• What is the primary first line pharmaceutical agent used to treat Coccidioidomycosis immitis (Valley Fever) in companion animals?
• Which structure within the hyoid apparatus is the source of pathology in temporohyoid osteopathy?
• In reviewing clinical chemistry profiles of two patients, P1 has increased CK and AST, P2 has increased CK. Which patient has acute muscle injury?
• Which part of the bone is commonly affected in canine osteosarcoma?
• A cat has become less active, reluctant to jump, and shows an unkempt appearance. Which condition should you be suspicious of?
• Horses that have ingested ionophores show which necropsy finding?
• Range paralysis stance is most commonly associated with which disease in birds?
• 2-year-old NM Rottweiler presents with primary complaint of inability to open jaw. What is next best diagnostic test?
• What are the most common locations for OCD lesions in dogs and horses?
• What is a recommended initial management approach for PSSM Type 1?
• In horses, osteosarcoma most commonly involves which bones?
• In osteoarthritis, subchondral bone becomes what?
• What imaging modality is best method for identifying rib fractures in a foal?
• What does windswept mean when describing angular deformities in limbs?
• To differentiate synovial cell carcinoma from histiocytic sarcoma, which diagnostic test is required?
• During a forelimb amputation, which muscle on the lateral aspect of the limb must be transected?
• Which histologic change is characteristic of chronic masticatory muscle myositis?
• What is the most common indicator for inferior (distal) check ligament desmotomy in horse?
• Which statement best describes when surgical treatment for OCD is preferred over conservative management in canine patients?
• Ionophore exposure in horses most notably causes necrosis of which tissues?
• As part of chicken physical exam, in addition to joints of foot and wing, range of motion should be assessed at what site?
• What is the median survival time in an untreated canine osteosarcoma patient?
• Which joint and muscular/tendon apparatus are affected in this foal's right front leg?
• Feline osteosarcoma has a low metastatic rate, approximately which percentage?
• Where does a rib fracture on a foal typically occur?
• Which canine primary bone tumor has a metastasis rate greater than 90%?
• What 2 radiographic views are recommended for an avian patient?
• In horses used for racing, which joint is commonly affected by osteoarthritis?
• Older sport horses typically suffer from what type of injuries?
• The medial femoral condyle is the most common location for which lesion in horses?
• Which muscle is NOT part of the four-muscle protective layer during thoracic limb amputation?
• Which two minerals are regulated by vitamin D to maintain homeostasis?
• Where is subchondral bone located, and how does it change in osteoarthritis?
• Why are oblique radiographic views of the carpus useful in diagnosing bony lesions of individual carpal bones?
• What is the prognosis after surgical treatment for shoulder OCD in dogs?
• Which flexural deformity is this yearling exhibiting?
• In fibrous osteodystrophy due to an all-meat diet, which mineral pattern is typically observed?
• By what age do OCD lesions in horses typically develop or are diagnosed?
• Streptococcus equi is best known for causing Strangles in horses. Which statement is most accurate?
• In horses, which joint has a poor prognosis after surgical treatment of OCD?
• In dogs, the metaphysis is the region of the bone most commonly affected by osteosarcoma.
• In HYPP, CK and AST levels would be within the reference range.
• Which structure is not considered a primary stabilizer of the stifle?
• Client's goat has complete brachial avulsion after ATV accident; cannot bear weight on limb, absent nociception; prognosis?
• What does the Ortolani maneuver evaluate?
• Which statement correctly identifies the most common component of elbow dysplasia?
• Which statement about mineral oil use after ionophore ingestion in horses is true?
• What imaging modality is preferred for the initial evaluation of the suspensory ligament?
• A dog must be at least how old to diagnose an ununited anconeal process?
• Fluconazole is commonly used to treat which fungal infection in companion animals?
• In dogs, which joint has a good prognosis after OCD surgery?
• The body of the suspensory ligament is bordered medially and laterally by which bones?
• Which four ligaments stabilize the stifle?
• Urine from an equine patient is red and there is positive heme reaction on urine dipstick. What would you expect if patient had myoglobinuria?
• Which joint is commonly referred to as the hock joint?
• What best describes the relationship between osteochondrosis (OC) and osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)?
• If you feel or hear a meniscal click while manipulating a stifle in a dog with CrCL disease, what would this indicate?
• At what age are dogs typically old enough to diagnose an ununited anconeal process?
• You perform a palmar digital nerve block and an abaxial sesamoid block and neither improve lameness. You then perform a low four-point block and the horse becomes sound. Where is the most likely origin of the lameness?
• Which field diagnostic tool is best suited to definitively diagnose temporohyoid osteopathy?
• When obtaining radiographs for elbow dysplasia, how many views are indicated for each elbow?
• Elbow radiographs for dysplasia evaluation typically require how many views per elbow?
• Which dietary factor has the strongest evidence for increasing the risk of osteochondrosis?
• Which bone typically does not require surgical fixation when fractured?
• The tarsocrural joint is located in which region of the limb?
• In canine OCD with radiographic abnormalities, what management is typically recommended?
• Which of the following statements is true about Clostridium species infections in ruminants?
• For younger dogs without significant radiographic changes, what is a reasonable initial management approach for OCD?
• What best explains the mechanism of hypercalcemia seen in lymphoma patients?
• In IMPA, which statement best describes primary IMPA?
• What tendon commonly ruptures as a sequela of carpal flexural deformities in horses?
• What does osteophyte formation represent?
• During a horse lameness examination, why is observing on different surfaces such as grass and concrete helpful?
• What is the etiopathology difference of cranial cruciate ligament disease between large and small breed dogs?
• Inferior check ligament desmotomy indications: which contracture?
• Which radiographic findings are consistent with osteoarthritis in the elbow of a companion animal?
• Which diagnostic finding distinguishes PSSM Type 1 from PSSM Type 2?
• Which is the most common clinical sign found in horses with OCD of the tarsocrural joint?
• Which radiographic finding is a hallmark of OA?
• What clinical sign is most consistently noted with dogs suffering from immune mediated polyarthritis?
• A yearling doe presents with lethargy, bowed thoracic limbs, muscle tremors, and softened ribs. The most likely culprit?
• A mutation in the SCN4A gene leading to HYPP affects which voltage-gated ion channel?
• Which tumor type accounts for the majority of canine primary bone tumors?
• Windswept angular deformities describe limbs deviating in which two directions?
• What has been identified as a negative prognostic factor in canine osteosarcoma?
• What is the most common component of elbow dysplasia?
• What is the most likely diagnosis for a horse with rhabdomyolysis and a temperature of 107°F during gas anesthesia?
• Which orthopedic test is pathognomonic for a ruptured CrCL?
• Which necropsy finding is commonly associated with clostridial infections in ruminants?
• A Quarter Horse with GYS1 mutation (PSSM Type 1) fails to respond to diet and exercise; the horse also has malignant hyperthermia. Which condition most likely explains the persistent issue?
• Vitamin D helps maintain homeostasis of which two minerals?
• In polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM), how does insulin influence disease progression?
• Which of the following signs are seen in ruminants infected with Clostridium species?
• Which vessel must be ligated during a thoracic limb amputation?
• The wing vein goes by many names, including basilic vein and ulnar vein. What is another common name?
• In chronic masticatory muscle myositis, what histopathologic change occurs?
• Middle age large breed dog with firm, painful swelling in distal radius and mild lameness; differential should be prioritized?
• Which maneuver is used to assess hip laxity in suspected hip dysplasia?
• What best describes the value of evaluating serum enzyme levels?
• Which four muscles are brought together in layers to protect the lateral thoracic wall during a thoracic limb amputation?
• The anti-2M antibody titer is used to diagnose which disease in dogs?
• Which ion is the primary conductor of the voltage-gated channel affected in HYPP?
• What is the most common risk factor for septic arthritis in neonatal foals and calves?
• Which scenario illustrates the most typical underlying mechanism leading to osteoarthritis in a dog?
• Besides muzzle deviation, what ocular sign is described as a classic sign of temporohyoid osteopathy?
• Which neutrophil characteristic is typically observed in IMPA synovial fluid?
• Which species shows a better prognosis for stifle or tarsal OCD after surgery?
• What can cause increases in serum Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) concentration?
• In a young, large-breed dog presenting with inability to open the jaw, which diagnostic test is most appropriate to confirm masticatory muscle myositis?
• Osteochondrosis in horses commonly affects which joint?
• The stifle joint in a chicken is equivalent to which human joint?
• Which gait change is consistent with hip dysplasia?
• Which diagnostic test most effectively differentiates erosive from non-erosive immune mediated polyarthritis?
• What is the most common signalment for dogs with masticatory muscle myositis?
• Where are articular cartilage flap lesions most likely to occur compared with subchondral bone cyst lesions?
• In assessing temporohyoid osteopathy, which procedure provides the most definitive field diagnosis?
• 7 mo MI Golden Retriever with signs of fibrous osteodystrophy (soft, deformed bones). Total and ionized calcium both low, serum phosphate high, PTH high. What is most likely cause of patient condition?
• What area of the tarsus is most commonly involved in OCD in the equine patient?
• What is the principal function of the suspensory ligament in the horse?
• In rickets, which portion of long bones is most commonly affected?